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Boost your Project Management exam preparation with this comprehensive set of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering all key topics: Project Fundamentals, Schedule Management, Cost & Procurement, Risk & Quality Management, Project Closing, and Agile Methodologies including Scrum, Kanban, and XP. Each question comes with the correct answer to help you practice effectively and ace your exams.
MCQs – Project Management
Module 1: Introduction to Project Management
Q1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a project?
a) Temporary in nature
b) Unique output
c) Continuous operations
d) Defined start and end dates
Answer: c) Continuous operations
Q2. The primary role of a project manager is to:
a) Approve project funding
b) Manage day-to-day tasks and deliver results
c) Set company goals
d) Audit project performance only
Answer: b) Manage day-to-day tasks and deliver results
Q3. Which methodology is best suited for projects with changing requirements?
a) Traditional (Waterfall)
b) Agile
c) Hybrid
d) Functional
Answer: b) Agile
Q4. A PMO (Project Management Office) mainly:
a) Provides coffee to team members
b) Standardizes project management processes
c) Executes project tasks directly
d) Monitors financial accounts only
Answer: b) Standardizes project management processes
Q5. The five process groups in project management are:
a) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing
b) Initiating, Planning, Testing, Reporting, Closing
c) Define, Analyze, Design, Build, Test
d) Planning, Designing, Building, Implementing, Monitoring
Answer: a) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing
Q6. Which knowledge area is about ensuring the project meets objectives on time?
a) Scope Management
b) Schedule Management
c) Risk Management
d) Procurement Management
Answer: b) Schedule Management
Q7. In Agile methodology, work is divided into short cycles called:
a) Milestones
b) Phases
c) Sprints
d) Waves
Answer: c) Sprints
Q8. A hybrid methodology combines:
a) Agile + Traditional
b) Agile + Scrum
c) Traditional + Kanban
d) Agile + Lean only
Answer: a) Agile + Traditional
Q9. A project differs from operations because:
a) Projects are repetitive
b) Operations are temporary
c) Projects are unique and temporary
d) Operations have no defined output
Answer: c) Projects are unique and temporary
Q10. Who certifies Project Management Professionals (PMP)?
a) Harvard University
b) Project Management Institute (PMI)
c) Scrum Alliance
d) IEEE
Answer: b) Project Management Institute (PMI)
Q11. The Triple Constraint includes:
a) Cost, Quality, Time
b) Time, Scope, Cost
c) Risk, Time, Scope
d) Scope, Procurement, HR
Answer: b) Time, Scope, Cost
Q12. The responsibility for resource allocation lies primarily with:
a) CEO
b) Functional Manager
c) Project Manager
d) PMO only
Answer: c) Project Manager
Q13. Agile methodology focuses on:
a) Flexibility and customer collaboration
b) Rigid planning and documentation
c) Fixed deadlines only
d) Resource management only
Answer: a) Flexibility and customer collaboration
Q14. A project manager must balance competing demands of:
a) Time, Cost, Scope, and Quality
b) HR, Finance, IT, and Marketing
c) CEO, Customers, Team, and PMO
d) Suppliers, Clients, Media, and Government
Answer: a) Time, Cost, Scope, and Quality
Q15. The primary success factor of a project is:
a) Delivering within budget and schedule while meeting requirements
b) Maximum documentation
c) Maximum use of resources
d) Maximum meetings
Answer: a) Delivering within budget and schedule while meeting requirements
Module 2: Project Charter & Scope
Q16. A Project Charter is created during which process group?
a) Planning
b) Initiating
c) Executing
d) Closing
Answer: b) Initiating
Q17. Which of the following is NOT included in a project charter?
a) Project objectives
b) Stakeholder list
c) Detailed schedule
d) High-level scope
Answer: c) Detailed schedule
Q18. A Project Management Plan is developed in which phase?
a) Initiating
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Monitoring
Answer: b) Planning
Q19. Which document formally authorizes a project?
a) Project Scope Statement
b) Project Charter
c) Work Breakdown Structure
d) Project Management Plan
Answer: b) Project Charter
Q20. Project Scope defines:
a) The detailed work required to deliver project outcomes
b) Only the team members
c) Only project risks
d) Only financial resources
Answer: a) The detailed work required to deliver project outcomes
Q21. Scope creep refers to:
a) Sudden project cancellation
b) Uncontrolled expansion of project scope without approval
c) Adding more resources
d) Shortening deadlines
Answer: b) Uncontrolled expansion of project scope without approval
Q22. The WBS (Work Breakdown Structure) breaks down project work into:
a) Resources
b) Work packages
c) Risks
d) Stakeholders
Answer: b) Work packages
Q23. Requirements gathering happens during:
a) Planning phase
b) Execution phase
c) Closing phase
d) Initiation phase
Answer: a) Planning phase
Q24. Which is an example of a project deliverable?
a) Project schedule
b) Final product/service/result
c) Risk log
d) Stakeholder list
Answer: b) Final product/service/result
Q25. A project scope statement mainly includes:
a) Deliverables, assumptions, and constraints
b) Budget details
c) Detailed team list
d) Procurement details only
Answer: a) Deliverables, assumptions, and constraints
Q26. Work Breakdown Structure helps in:
a) Estimating project costs
b) Organizing project tasks
c) Tracking risks only
d) Hiring resources
Answer: b) Organizing project tasks
Q27. A Project Management Plan integrates:
a) All subsidiary plans like scope, schedule, cost, quality, risk, etc.
b) Only cost management plan
c) Only resource plan
d) Only communication plan
Answer: a) All subsidiary plans like scope, schedule, cost, quality, risk, etc.
Q28. Who signs off the project charter?
a) Project Manager
b) Sponsor/Client
c) PMO
d) Functional Manager
Answer: b) Sponsor/Client
Q29. Project requirements refer to:
a) Needs and expectations of stakeholders
b) Detailed HR policies
c) PM’s career goals
d) PMO guidelines only
Answer: a) Needs and expectations of stakeholders
Q30. Which tool is most useful for defining scope?
a) WBS
b) RACI Matrix
c) SWOT Analysis
d) Monte Carlo simulation
Answer: a) WBS
**Module 3: Stakeholders & Communication
Q31. Stakeholder analysis helps in:
a) Identifying people impacted by the project
b) Hiring new employees
c) Testing software
d) Preparing WBS
Answer: a) Identifying people impacted by the project
Q32. Which of the following is a common barrier to communication?
a) Clear message
b) Active listening
c) Language differences
d) Proper feedback
Answer: c) Language differences
Q33. The communication channels formula is:
a) n + 2
b) n(n – 1)/2
c) n²
d) n × 2
Answer: b) n(n – 1)/2
Q34. Which type of communication is most effective for resolving conflicts?
a) Email
b) Instant messaging
c) Face-to-face
d) Newsletter
Answer: c) Face-to-face
Q35. Formal communication includes:
a) Memos, reports, presentations
b) Gossip
c) Informal chats
d) Personal calls
Answer: a) Memos, reports, presentations
Q36. Which document provides communication guidelines in a project?
a) Communication Management Plan
b) Stakeholder Register
c) Project Charter
d) WBS
Answer: a) Communication Management Plan
Q37. Stakeholders with high power and high interest should be:
a) Monitored
b) Kept satisfied
c) Managed closely
d) Ignored
Answer: c) Managed closely
Q38. Which is NOT a stakeholder?
a) Project sponsor
b) End users
c) Competitors
d) Functional manager
Answer: c) Competitors
Q39. Informal communication is useful because:
a) It spreads rumors
b) It builds relationships and trust
c) It avoids documentation
d) It replaces meetings
Answer: b) It builds relationships and trust
Q40. Active listening in communication means:
a) Interrupting frequently
b) Understanding and clarifying
c) Speaking more
d) Taking notes only
Answer: b) Understanding and clarifying
Q41. Project reports, dashboards, and minutes are examples of:
a) Informal communication
b) Formal communication
c) Vertical communication
d) Personal communication
Answer: b) Formal communication
Q42. Stakeholder register includes:
a) Names, roles, interests, influence of stakeholders
b) WBS details
c) Budget details
d) Procurement info
Answer: a) Names, roles, interests, influence of stakeholders
Q43. Which channel is most useful for urgent project communication?
a) Weekly newsletter
b) Team meeting
c) Email
d) Dashboard
Answer: b) Team meeting
Q44. The main purpose of project communication management is to:
a) Minimize meetings
b) Ensure timely and appropriate information distribution
c) Reduce budget
d) Eliminate stakeholders
Answer: b) Ensure timely and appropriate information distribution
Q45. Stakeholder engagement is critical because:
a) It increases scope creep
b) It reduces risk of resistance and conflict
c) It delays the project
d) It reduces team motivation
Answer: b) It reduces risk of resistance and conflict
Module 4: Resources & Team Management
Q46. Resource management includes:
a) Planning, acquiring, and managing resources
b) Only team hiring
c) Only equipment buying
d) Only budget planning
Answer: a) Planning, acquiring, and managing resources
Q47. RBS (Resource Breakdown Structure) organizes resources by:
a) Category and type
b) Deliverables
c) Risk levels
d) Activities
Answer: a) Category and type
Q48. Which leadership style is best for Agile teams?
a) Autocratic
b) Servant leadership
c) Transactional
d) Bureaucratic
Answer: b) Servant leadership
Q49. Which type of power comes from formal position authority?
a) Expert power
b) Referent power
c) Legitimate power
d) Reward power
Answer: c) Legitimate power
Q50. Maslow’s theory focuses on:
a) Hierarchy of needs
b) Expectancy
c) Hygiene factors
d) Equity theory
Answer: a) Hierarchy of needs
Q51. Emotional intelligence includes:
a) Self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, social skills
b) Strict discipline
c) Technical skills only
d) Knowledge of PMBOK
Answer: a) Self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, social skills
Q52. Team development stages include:
a) Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning
b) Planning, Doing, Reviewing, Closing
c) Hiring, Training, Assigning, Reporting
d) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Closing
Answer: a) Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning
Q53. A RACI matrix defines:
a) Roles and responsibilities (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed)
b) Budget plan
c) Risk categories
d) Project scope
Answer: a) Roles and responsibilities (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed)
Q54. Which type of power is based on respect and admiration?
a) Coercive power
b) Expert power
c) Referent power
d) Legitimate power
Answer: c) Referent power
Q55. Motivation theory stating “rewards drive behavior” is:
a) Maslow’s Theory
b) Herzberg’s Theory
c) Expectancy Theory
d) Equity Theory
Answer: c) Expectancy Theory
Q56. A high-performing team shows:
a) Lack of trust
b) Strong collaboration and accountability
c) Frequent conflicts
d) No communication
Answer: b) Strong collaboration and accountability
Q57. Which factor is critical in negotiating resources?
a) Interpersonal skills
b) Cost-cutting only
c) Strict authority
d) Ignoring stakeholders
Answer: a) Interpersonal skills
Q58. Which appraisal is conducted to assess team performance?
a) SWOT
b) 360-degree feedback
c) WBS analysis
d) Risk review
Answer: b) 360-degree feedback
Q59. Innovative teams are usually:
a) Diverse and collaborative
b) Uniform and rigid
c) Top-down controlled
d) Discouraged in PM
Answer: a) Diverse and collaborative
Q60. Global megatrends in project management focus on:
a) Sustainability, digital transformation, and global collaboration
b) Only local projects
c) Avoiding innovation
d) Cost-cutting only
Answer: a) Sustainability, digital transformation, and global collaboration
Project Schedule Management & Estimating
Q61. What is the primary purpose of a project schedule?
a) Define project budget
b) Track project activities and deadlines
c) Identify stakeholders
d) Approve resources
Answer: b) Track project activities and deadlines
Q62. Which estimating technique uses historical information from similar projects?
a) Parametric
b) Bottom-up
c) Analogous
d) Three-point
Answer: c) Analogous
Q63. Parametric estimating uses:
a) Detailed WBS only
b) Historical data and statistical relationships
c) Expert judgment only
d) Random assumptions
Answer: b) Historical data and statistical relationships
Q64. Bottom-up estimating involves:
a) Estimating each activity and summing up
b) Using previous project data
c) Guessing durations
d) Ignoring risks
Answer: a) Estimating each activity and summing up
Q65. Three-Point Estimating in PERT involves:
a) Optimistic, Most Likely, Pessimistic
b) Start, Middle, End
c) Cost, Time, Scope
d) Plan, Execute, Control
Answer: a) Optimistic, Most Likely, Pessimistic
Q66. Sequence activities before scheduling because:
a) Dependencies determine order and timing
b) Budget is unknown
c) Stakeholders are not identified
d) Team is not formed
Answer: a) Dependencies determine order and timing
Q67. Leads in scheduling:
a) Delay the successor activity
b) Allow successor to start before predecessor finishes
c) Add resources
d) Reduce quality
Answer: b) Allow successor to start before predecessor finishes
Q68. Lags in scheduling:
a) Delay the successor activity
b) Allow successor to start immediately
c) Reduce resources
d) Extend project scope
Answer: a) Delay the successor activity
Q69. Network diagrams are used to:
a) Visualize activity dependencies and critical path
b) Track costs only
c) Manage quality
d) Identify stakeholders
Answer: a) Visualize activity dependencies and critical path
Q70. A Gantt chart shows:
a) Budget trends
b) Activities along a timeline
c) Risk analysis
d) Procurement details
Answer: b) Activities along a timeline
Q71. Schedule compression techniques include:
a) Crashing and Fast Tracking
b) Analogous estimating
c) PERT analysis
d) Risk avoidance
Answer: a) Crashing and Fast Tracking
Q72. Fast tracking involves:
a) Performing activities in parallel
b) Adding more resources
c) Ignoring quality
d) Reducing scope
Answer: a) Performing activities in parallel
Q73. Crashing involves:
a) Adding resources to shorten duration
b) Delaying activities
c) Ignoring dependencies
d) Removing tasks
Answer: a) Adding resources to shorten duration
Q74. Schedule baseline is used for:
a) Tracking actual vs planned performance
b) Budget approval only
c) Risk management
d) Vendor selection
Answer: a) Tracking actual vs planned performance
Q75. Which schedule constraint affects timing?
a) Resource availability
b) Cost
c) Quality
d) Stakeholder interest
Answer: a) Resource availability
Q76. Estimating duration should consider:
a) Resource availability and task complexity
b) Only stakeholder preference
c) Only cost
d) Only procurement
Answer: a) Resource availability and task complexity
Q77. Critical Path Method (CPM) determines:
a) Longest path of dependent activities
b) Budget allocation
c) Stakeholder power
d) Risk impact
Answer: a) Longest path of dependent activities
Q78. Free Float is:
a) Time an activity can be delayed without delaying successor
b) Time beyond project completion
c) Budget buffer
d) Resource surplus
Answer: a) Time an activity can be delayed without delaying successor
Q79. Total Float is:
a) Time an activity can be delayed without delaying project finish
b) Cost contingency
c) Risk margin
d) Resource availability
Answer: a) Time an activity can be delayed without delaying project finish
Q80. The main output of activity definition is:
a) WBS and activity list
b) Risk register
c) Budget
d) Procurement plan
Answer: a) WBS and activity list
Project Cost & Procurement Management
Q81. Project cost management includes:
a) Planning, estimating, budgeting, and controlling costs
b) Only estimating costs
c) Only HR management
d) Only quality assurance
Answer: a) Planning, estimating, budgeting, and controlling costs
Q82. The main purpose of earned value management (EVM) is:
a) Integrate scope, schedule, and cost performance
b) Track procurement
c) Monitor quality only
d) Identify stakeholders
Answer: a) Integrate scope, schedule, and cost performance
Q83. Cost estimating techniques include all EXCEPT:
a) Analogous
b) Parametric
c) Bottom-up
d) PDCA
Answer: d) PDCA
Q84. Budget determination considers:
a) Cost baseline, contingency reserves, management reserves
b) Only WBS
c) Only schedule
d) Only risks
Answer: a) Cost baseline, contingency reserves, management reserves
Q85. Make-or-buy decisions are part of:
a) Procurement management
b) Schedule management
c) Quality management
d) Risk management
Answer: a) Procurement management
Q86. Key procurement documents include:
a) RFP, RFQ, contracts, purchase orders
b) WBS only
c) Gantt charts only
d) Risk register only
Answer: a) RFP, RFQ, contracts, purchase orders
Q87. Vendor evaluation should consider:
a) Price, quality, reliability, delivery time
b) Only cost
c) Only proximity
d) Only communication style
Answer: a) Price, quality, reliability, delivery time
Q88. Contract types in projects include:
a) Fixed-price, Cost-reimbursable, Time & Material
b) WBS, Gantt, CPM
c) Float, Lead, Lag
d) SWOT, PERT, CPM
Answer: a) Fixed-price, Cost-reimbursable, Time & Material
Q89. Supplier relationship management helps in:
a) Ensuring timely delivery and quality
b) Avoiding schedule planning
c) Ignoring risks
d) Reducing budget only
Answer: a) Ensuring timely delivery and quality
Q90. Procurement management includes monitoring:
a) Supplier performance
b) Only project scope
c) Only internal resources
d) Only schedule
Answer: a) Supplier performance
Q91. EVM formulas include:
a) CV = EV – AC, SV = EV – PV, CPI = EV/AC, SPI = EV/PV
b) CV = PV – EV, SV = AC – EV
c) CPI = AC/PV, SPI = AC/EV
d) None of the above
Answer: a) CV = EV – AC, SV = EV – PV, CPI = EV/AC, SPI = EV/PV
Q92. Planned Value (PV) represents:
a) Budgeted cost for work scheduled
b) Actual cost of work done
c) Earned cost of work done
d) Schedule variance
Answer: a) Budgeted cost for work scheduled
Q93. Actual Cost (AC) represents:
a) Cost incurred for work performed
b) Budgeted cost
c) Schedule baseline
d) Quality measurement
Answer: a) Cost incurred for work performed
Q94. Earned Value (EV) represents:
a) Budgeted cost of work actually completed
b) Actual cost
c) Schedule variance
d) Float
Answer: a) Budgeted cost of work actually completed
Q95. Cost Variance (CV) is:
a) EV – AC
b) AC – EV
c) PV – EV
d) EV – PV
Answer: a) EV – AC
Q96. Schedule Variance (SV) is:
a) EV – PV
b) PV – EV
c) AC – EV
d) EV – AC
Answer: a) EV – PV
Q97. Cost Performance Index (CPI) >1 indicates:
a) Under budget
b) Over budget
c) On budget
d) Schedule delayed
Answer: a) Under budget
Q98. Schedule Performance Index (SPI) <1 indicates:
a) Behind schedule
b) Ahead of schedule
c) On schedule
d) Over budget
Answer: a) Behind schedule
Q99. Risk reserves in budget planning are used for:
a) Unforeseen events
b) Planned activities only
c) Team salaries
d) Procurement only
Answer: a) Unforeseen events
Q100. Cost of quality (CoQ) includes:
a) Prevention, appraisal, and failure costs
b) Only procurement cost
c) Only salary cost
d) Only material cost
Answer: a) Prevention, appraisal, and failure costs
Project Risk Management
Q101. The first step in risk management is:
a) Risk response planning
b) Risk identification
c) Risk monitoring
d) Risk reporting
Answer: b) Risk identification
Q102. A Risk Register typically includes:
a) Risk description, probability, impact, owner, response
b) Only risk name
c) WBS details
d) Schedule baseline
Answer: a) Risk description, probability, impact, owner, response
Q103. Qualitative risk analysis focuses on:
a) Probability and impact of risks
b) Exact cost of risks
c) Schedule changes only
d) Procurement options
Answer: a) Probability and impact of risks
Q104. Quantitative risk analysis focuses on:
a) Numerically analyzing impact on cost and schedule
b) Identifying stakeholders
c) Planning communication
d) Resource allocation
Answer: a) Numerically analyzing impact on cost and schedule
Q105. Common risk response strategies include:
a) Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept
b) Ignore, Delay, Reduce, Cancel
c) Plan, Execute, Monitor, Close
d) Fast-track, Crash, Float, Lead
Answer: a) Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept
Q106. Transferring a risk means:
a) Shifting responsibility to a third party
b) Eliminating the risk
c) Ignoring the risk
d) Reducing project scope
Answer: a) Shifting responsibility to a third party
Q107. Mitigating a risk means:
a) Reducing the probability or impact
b) Accepting it
c) Ignoring it
d) Delaying project start
Answer: a) Reducing the probability or impact
Q108. Accepting a risk means:
a) Acknowledging it and planning a contingency if needed
b) Avoiding the project
c) Transferring it to a vendor
d) Crashing the schedule
Answer: a) Acknowledging it and planning a contingency if needed
Q109. Monitoring risks involves:
a) Tracking identified risks and evaluating new risks
b) Approving budgets
c) Scheduling resources
d) Closing project
Answer: a) Tracking identified risks and evaluating new risks
Q110. The Risk Report is mainly used for:
a) Communication with stakeholders about risk status
b) Defining project scope
c) Scheduling resources
d) Closing the project
Answer: a) Communication with stakeholders about risk status
Project Quality Management
Q111. Project quality management ensures:
a) Project meets requirements and customer satisfaction
b) Only cost control
c) Only schedule adherence
d) Only risk avoidance
Answer: a) Project meets requirements and customer satisfaction
Q112. The PDCA cycle stands for:
a) Plan, Do, Check, Act
b) Prepare, Deploy, Control, Audit
c) Plan, Develop, Control, Adjust
d) Prepare, Do, Confirm, Act
Answer: a) Plan, Do, Check, Act
Q113. Cost of Quality (CoQ) includes:
a) Prevention, appraisal, internal and external failure costs
b) Only labor costs
c) Only material costs
d) Only procurement costs
Answer: a) Prevention, appraisal, internal and external failure costs
Q114. Quality Assurance focuses on:
a) Process and compliance to standards
b) Only final product testing
c) Cost reduction
d) Risk mitigation
Answer: a) Process and compliance to standards
Q115. Quality Control focuses on:
a) Detecting defects in deliverables
b) Budget planning
c) Risk transfer
d) Schedule compression
Answer: a) Detecting defects in deliverables
Project Closing & Change Control
Q116. The primary purpose of project closing is:
a) Finalize all activities, release resources, and document lessons learned
b) Start new tasks
c) Approve new vendors
d) Only pay invoices
Answer: a) Finalize all activities, release resources, and document lessons learned
Q117. A Post-Mortem report includes:
a) Lessons learned, successes, failures, recommendations
b) Only cost report
c) Only schedule report
d) Only risk list
Answer: a) Lessons learned, successes, failures, recommendations
Q118. An Issue Log is used to:
a) Track problems, their status, and resolutions
b) Track quality defects only
c) Track vendor payments
d) Track resource availability
Answer: a) Track problems, their status, and resolutions
Q119. Change control ensures:
a) Any project changes are formally reviewed, approved, and documented
b) All tasks are ignored
c) Budget increases automatically
d) Schedule always remains fixed
Answer: a) Any project changes are formally reviewed, approved, and documented
Q120. Knowledge management in project closing helps:
a) Preserve lessons for future projects
b) Avoid risk documentation
c) Reduce schedule duration
d) Increase float
Answer: a) Preserve lessons for future projects
Agile Project Management
Q121. Agile project management focuses on:
a) Flexibility, iterative delivery, and customer collaboration
b) Strict adherence to initial plan
c) Single delivery at project end
d) Ignoring stakeholder feedback
Answer: a) Flexibility, iterative delivery, and customer collaboration
Q122. The Agile Manifesto emphasizes:
a) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
b) Processes and tools over people
c) Contract negotiation over customer collaboration
d) Following a strict plan over responding to change
Answer: a) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
Q123. Which of the following is NOT an Agile value?
a) Responding to change over following a plan
b) Working software over comprehensive documentation
c) Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
d) Ignoring team input over communication
Answer: d) Ignoring team input over communication
Q124. Agile differs from Waterfall in that it:
a) Delivers work iteratively and incrementally
b) Follows a linear sequence
c) Requires no testing
d) Ignores customer feedback
Answer: a) Delivers work iteratively and incrementally
Q125. Hybrid project management combines:
a) Agile flexibility with predictive planning
b) Only Agile methodology
c) Only Waterfall methodology
d) Only Kanban boards
Answer: a) Agile flexibility with predictive planning
Q126. Scrum is a framework that uses:
a) Sprints, roles, and ceremonies to manage work
b) Only a Gantt chart
c) Fixed cost contracts
d) Linear phases without iterations
Answer: a) Sprints, roles, and ceremonies to manage work
Q127. Lean Agile focuses on:
a) Reducing waste and improving value delivery
b) Increasing bureaucracy
c) Ignoring customer feedback
d) Only documenting processes
Answer: a) Reducing waste and improving value delivery
Q128. Kanban emphasizes:
a) Visual workflow management and limiting work in progress
b) Strict time-boxed sprints only
c) Ignoring bottlenecks
d) Working without priorities
Answer: a) Visual workflow management and limiting work in progress
Q129. Extreme Programming (XP) focuses on:
a) Technical practices like pair programming and test-driven development
b) Only project scheduling
c) Only procurement
d) Ignoring stakeholder feedback
Answer: a) Technical practices like pair programming and test-driven development
Q130. Agile frameworks can be represented in a:
a) Venn diagram to show overlapping practices
b) Bar chart of budgets
c) Critical path network
d) Issue log
Answer: a) Venn diagram to show overlapping practices
Scrum & Sprints
Q131. A Sprint is:
a) A time-boxed iteration of work in Scrum
b) The project budget approval phase
c) A milestone in Waterfall
d) A procurement cycle
Answer: a) A time-boxed iteration of work in Scrum
Q132. Key roles in Scrum include:
a) Scrum Master, Product Owner, Development Team
b) Project Manager only
c) Stakeholder and Sponsor only
d) Vendor and Client only
Answer: a) Scrum Master, Product Owner, Development Team
Q133. The Product Backlog contains:
a) Prioritized list of features, enhancements, and fixes
b) Detailed Gantt chart
c) Project budget
d) Risk register
Answer: a) Prioritized list of features, enhancements, and fixes
Q134. Backlog Refinement involves:
a) Reviewing, updating, and prioritizing backlog items
b) Writing project reports only
c) Scheduling procurement
d) Closing project
Answer: a) Reviewing, updating, and prioritizing backlog items
Q135. User stories are:
a) Short, simple descriptions of a feature from an end-user perspective
b) Detailed risk assessments
c) Budget approvals
d) Procurement contracts
Answer: a) Short, simple descriptions of a feature from an end-user perspective
Q136. Daily Standup is:
a) A short meeting to discuss progress, plans, and impediments
b) Monthly budget review
c) Risk analysis session
d) Contract negotiation
Answer: a) A short meeting to discuss progress, plans, and impediments
Q137. Sprint Review is conducted to:
a) Demonstrate completed work to stakeholders and gather feedback
b) Plan the next project only
c) Close the project
d) Approve procurement
Answer: a) Demonstrate completed work to stakeholders and gather feedback
Q138. Sprint Retrospective focuses on:
a) Improving team processes and performance for the next sprint
b) Cost baseline
c) Project schedule baseline
d) Vendor evaluation
Answer: a) Improving team processes and performance for the next sprint
Q139. Burn Down Chart shows:
a) Remaining work over time in a sprint or project
b) Total cost spent
c) Stakeholder communication
d) Vendor performance
Answer: a) Remaining work over time in a sprint or project
Q140. Burn Up Chart shows:
a) Work completed over time
b) Budget variance
c) Risk probability
d) Procurement schedule
Answer: a) Work completed over time
Agile Organizations & Leadership
Q141. Five trademarks of Agile organizations include:
a) Collaboration, transparency, adaptability, alignment, empowerment
b) Strict hierarchy and fixed plans
c) Only cost control
d) Ignoring technology
Answer: a) Collaboration, transparency, adaptability, alignment, empowerment
Q142. Agile strategic vision emphasizes:
a) Alignment of teams with business objectives and flexibility to adapt
b) Ignoring stakeholders
c) Only strict planning
d) Cost-cutting measures
Answer: a) Alignment of teams with business objectives and flexibility to adapt
Q143. Being Agile vs Practicing Agile means:
a) Agile mindset vs just following Agile rituals
b) Only using Gantt charts
c) Only scheduling resources
d) Ignoring team performance
Answer: a) Agile mindset vs just following Agile rituals
Q144. Servant leadership in Agile focuses on:
a) Supporting the team, removing impediments, enabling success
b) Controlling all decisions centrally
c) Ignoring team feedback
d) Only monitoring budgets
Answer: a) Supporting the team, removing impediments, enabling success
Q145. Distributed Agile teams require:
a) Communication tools, clear processes, and trust among members
b) Ignoring time zones
c) Only physical meetings
d) Fixed roles with no flexibility
Answer: a) Communication tools, clear processes, and trust among members
Q146. Agile organizational structure is typically:
a) Flat, cross-functional, and self-organizing
b) Strictly hierarchical
c) Departmental with isolated silos
d) Focused only on finance
Answer: a) Flat, cross-functional, and self-organizing
Q147. Agile encourages embracing technology to:
a) Enable collaboration, automation, and faster delivery
b) Replace human decision-making entirely
c) Ignore team feedback
d) Only for reporting budgets
Answer: a) Enable collaboration, automation, and faster delivery
Q148. Key principles of Agile include:
a) Customer satisfaction, responding to change, frequent delivery, sustainable pace
b) Ignore stakeholders, fixed scope, long cycles
c) Budget only, cost reduction, procurement focus
d) Fixed roles, slow delivery, minimal interaction
Answer: a) Customer satisfaction, responding to change, frequent delivery, sustainable pace
Q149. Team velocity in Agile measures:
a) Amount of work completed in a sprint
b) Number of stakeholders
c) Budget spent
d) Number of contracts signed
Answer: a) Amount of work completed in a sprint
Q150. User Story Points are used to:
a) Estimate relative effort or complexity of backlog items
b) Track budget only
c) Track risks only
d) Schedule procurement
Answer: a) Estimate relative effort or complexity of backlog items
